Your "mistranslations" confirm Greek primacy

[Paul Younan]

Anyway, in the book of Acts, Paul did make statements such as "from now on I go to the Gentiles, correct? And also other statements about, "making known the conversion of the Gentiles" and also the letter written from Jerusalem addressed to the "Gentile brethren" there is no way that they would refer to Jews as Gentile brethren, or that recently occupied Greek lands being Roman colonies would in any logical sense be speaking Aramaic, when the Greek lands had only relatively recently been occupied by the Romans and thus would have still been speaking Greek. Where Aramaic comes into that scenario is beyond me.

Please remember that Aramaic is a Gentile language. I am, in fact, an Aramaic-speaking Gentile. The vast majority of Aramaic speakers during the time of Christ (and even today) are *not* Jewish. We're talking about several nations as well. (Assyrians, Arameans, Chaldeans, Babylonians, Phoenicians, etc.)

There were many more Gentile Aramaic-speakers in those areas of Asia Minor, than Jewish Aramaic-speakers.

+Shamasha