Your "mistranslations" confirm Greek primacy

[Zardak]

Thanks for the welcome guys! I hear what your saying and can see there is a lot i don't know, but also i believe some simple facts of common sense in my case can still give a workable answer of substance until i'm proved totally wrong. Thus if i mention things like apostle Paul (LOL, i have to write apostle before Paul to avoid any mix up of referring to Mr Younan) Anyway, in the book of Acts, Paul did make statements such as "from now on I go to the Gentiles, correct? And also other statements about, "making known the conversion of the Gentiles" and also the letter written from Jerusalem addressed to the "Gentile brethren" there is no way that they would refer to Jews as Gentile brethren, or that recently occupied Greek lands being Roman colonies would in any logical sense be speaking Aramaic, when the Greek lands had only relatively recently been occupied by the Romans and thus would have still been speaking Greek. Where Aramaic comes into that scenario is beyond me. Therefore the letters Paul wrote after evangelizing the Gentiles when having departed from the Jews from that point were subsequently to the Gentile audience to whom he did indeed go, as in the place name of the letters, now he would not refer to any Hellenists as Gentiles as they were Jews, and he would not be referring to Jews of the dispersion, therefore he was indeed writing to Greeks who would have been definitely speaking the Greek language, simple. There is no way the the lands of Greece would have been speaking Aramaic as their mother tongue, that is nigh on impossible considering the circumstances. Quite clear cut in my mind. Also as regards the letter of Hebrews, the content does seem to indicate that there was an audience who might have already had a fairly good understanding of Jewish history etc, but that could be explained that the Hellenists were Greek speaking Jews and that quite a few times a lot of Jews living in Asia minor had been converted already in the Greek lands.Thus the overwhelming evidence would suggest to me that its a very high probability that the New Testament was originally written in the Greek language. How on earth would an Ephesian being steeped in idolatry have any acquaintance with the Aramaic language, just doesn't add up at all, the majority of the believers from those lands would have been predominantly Greeks and Gentiles, with a few Jews or Israelites sprinkled among them.

Apart from that, anyone discounting the implications of the bible numerics behind the Greek is overlooking a very potent verifier from God. The fact that the Greek texts are so entwined with such precise mathematical calculations to the point of proving the sheer supernatural origin of them, means to me that the Greek texts have already been stamped by God as "perfect" and from Him.Those precise mathematical patterns have not been shown in the Aramaic at all. God also shows those sorts of patterns in nature to show He is the Creator. To make an outright statement that every New Testament letter was "originally" written in Aramaic makes absolutely no sense "whatsoever" considering the overall known facts of history. I am happy to be proved wrong, but at this stage its looking highly unlikely. <!-- satisfied: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/satisfied.gif" alt="atisfied:" title="Satisfied" /><!-- satisfied: -->