06-21-2012, 04:52 AM
Matt 23:22 has "k'uwrsyeh"=throne, rather than the Greek word that shows up in Matt 19:28 & 25:31
"And whosoever sweareth by heaven, sweareth by the throne of Alaha, and by Him who sitteth thereon."
I guess my question would be...if Matthew wrote in Aramaic, and the Peshitta text is from that source and not a Greek source, why does it have the Greek word for "throne" in two places, then the Aramaic word for "throne" in two places? Would Matthew have done this? And if so, what would be a reason?
Shlama,
Chuck
"And whosoever sweareth by heaven, sweareth by the throne of Alaha, and by Him who sitteth thereon."
I guess my question would be...if Matthew wrote in Aramaic, and the Peshitta text is from that source and not a Greek source, why does it have the Greek word for "throne" in two places, then the Aramaic word for "throne" in two places? Would Matthew have done this? And if so, what would be a reason?
Shlama,
Chuck