11-01-2011, 11:25 PM
So in summary. When we see the Lord it always refers to God, and when we see my Lord or our Lord is does not refer to God but it is being used in the more generic sense.
The only exception to this is where the translators of the Greek NT have used the Lord to refer to Jesus, on some occasions.
Try reading the greek (or an english translation of the greek) of 1 Corinthians (especially chapter 6,7 and 11). The peshitta is perfectly clear because it uses the well know forms.
The greek becomes confusing because it uses the Lord for Jesus, at times and at other times it uses my Lord or our Lord.
The only exception to this is where the translators of the Greek NT have used the Lord to refer to Jesus, on some occasions.
Try reading the greek (or an english translation of the greek) of 1 Corinthians (especially chapter 6,7 and 11). The peshitta is perfectly clear because it uses the well know forms.
The greek becomes confusing because it uses the Lord for Jesus, at times and at other times it uses my Lord or our Lord.