06-21-2011, 02:52 PM
I'm not far enough into my Aramaic studies to have a right to comment from that angle, but from the Hebrew angle I do remember learning that Hebrew Tanakh did not use a word for the Temple that is a straight cognate for our Latin-based word. Instead, terms like "Holy House" and "House of God" were used (please forgive if I bungled those at all).
If I haven't made an error above, perhaps it's fair to say that the burden would be to prove they were anywhere but the Temple, if it's indicated by the commandment and allowed by the wording of the historical account.
If I haven't made an error above, perhaps it's fair to say that the burden would be to prove they were anywhere but the Temple, if it's indicated by the commandment and allowed by the wording of the historical account.