05-16-2011, 10:29 AM
The author of Hebrews is not quoting the LXX or the massoretic hebrew text.
This leaves several possibilities.
1. The author is paraphrasing (or doing as Paul Y suggested above)
2.The author quotes an aramaic targum we no longer have. (see Pauls quote of psalm 68:18 in epesians!)
3.The author quotes an old hebrew text that we no longer have (we know from the DSS that there was more than one version of the hebrew bible back in that time).
Interestingly IIRC Andrew GR once indicated that the Zohar contained a reading which partly agreed with psalm 40 as quoted in the NT.
I think you'll find that the LXX differs slightly from the quote in hebrews but where it differs the Zohar agrees. Thats IIRC.
You''l find it in the old forum which is somehow still avaliable (maybe in the wayback machine, not sure how to get it)
This leaves several possibilities.
1. The author is paraphrasing (or doing as Paul Y suggested above)
2.The author quotes an aramaic targum we no longer have. (see Pauls quote of psalm 68:18 in epesians!)
3.The author quotes an old hebrew text that we no longer have (we know from the DSS that there was more than one version of the hebrew bible back in that time).
Interestingly IIRC Andrew GR once indicated that the Zohar contained a reading which partly agreed with psalm 40 as quoted in the NT.
I think you'll find that the LXX differs slightly from the quote in hebrews but where it differs the Zohar agrees. Thats IIRC.
You''l find it in the old forum which is somehow still avaliable (maybe in the wayback machine, not sure how to get it)