05-16-2011, 05:40 AM
Shlama Akhi Chuck,
I don't think it's directly quoting any passage. Paul is simply writing what God said when He came into this world, in the third person:
There is no mention of the Psalmist, although Paul may have been alluding to that portion of scripture in this teaching. But I don't see this as necessarily a quote. When you read my reply to the below question, this may make a bit more sense.
I'm not sure which manuscript numbers they are, you'll need to research this portion. All the material I have says this is a minority reading in the LXX manuscripts. And it makes sense, here why:
I believe the MSS, Targum, Peshitta, and Vulgate have the correct reading for Psalm 40. I think some of the LXX manuscripts were later modified by Christian (Greek) scribes to conform them to the reading in Hebrews 10:5, falsely believing that Paul was quoting directly from Psalm 40.
My question originally was, why does this have to be a direct quotation of Psalm 40 from Paul? It actually makes more sense that Paul was paraphrasing, and (some) Greek scribes later revised manuscripts of the LXX to conform to it. There have been other cases where OT passages were altered to more closely read like NT passages.
This makes the fact that only some LXX copies read this way for Psalm 40, make more sense.
+Shamasha
Thirdwoe Wrote:What passage is it quoting if not Psalm 40:6 ??? It is a clear qoute from that passage is it not.
I don't think it's directly quoting any passage. Paul is simply writing what God said when He came into this world, in the third person:
Quote:Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: "Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me;" .....
There is no mention of the Psalmist, although Paul may have been alluding to that portion of scripture in this teaching. But I don't see this as necessarily a quote. When you read my reply to the below question, this may make a bit more sense.
Thirdwoe Wrote:And which Septuagint manuscripts show the same reading as the Hebrew and Peshitta? I'd like to know which.
I'm not sure which manuscript numbers they are, you'll need to research this portion. All the material I have says this is a minority reading in the LXX manuscripts. And it makes sense, here why:
I believe the MSS, Targum, Peshitta, and Vulgate have the correct reading for Psalm 40. I think some of the LXX manuscripts were later modified by Christian (Greek) scribes to conform them to the reading in Hebrews 10:5, falsely believing that Paul was quoting directly from Psalm 40.
My question originally was, why does this have to be a direct quotation of Psalm 40 from Paul? It actually makes more sense that Paul was paraphrasing, and (some) Greek scribes later revised manuscripts of the LXX to conform to it. There have been other cases where OT passages were altered to more closely read like NT passages.
This makes the fact that only some LXX copies read this way for Psalm 40, make more sense.
+Shamasha