03-28-2011, 04:16 AM
Check, for instance, Mark 5:41. How different was the phrase "Talitha Qumi" in the 1st century, and the "4th century Syriac?" So different that it just reads that way in the Peshitta, apparently!
Also, check out the Interlinear on Luke 8:54 as well. Mind you, the Greek does not preserve the Aramaic phrase in Luke. How did the Peshitta, supposedly a translation of the Greek in a different dialect from what Jesus spoke, come up with the identical phrase in Luke 8:54 ?
The fact is there was no single dialect that Jesus spoke, He spoke them all whenever the need arose. And we have no evidence whatsoever that any one of them were any more different from "4th-century Syriac", than they were with each other.
So all of this is really absurd. =)
+Shamasha
Also, check out the Interlinear on Luke 8:54 as well. Mind you, the Greek does not preserve the Aramaic phrase in Luke. How did the Peshitta, supposedly a translation of the Greek in a different dialect from what Jesus spoke, come up with the identical phrase in Luke 8:54 ?
The fact is there was no single dialect that Jesus spoke, He spoke them all whenever the need arose. And we have no evidence whatsoever that any one of them were any more different from "4th-century Syriac", than they were with each other.
So all of this is really absurd. =)
+Shamasha