02-26-2011, 07:09 AM
The "official" consensus seems to be that there are a couple of hundred years between OT and NT Peshitta. If that were indeed the case, then the language of the 2 must have some pretty distintive differences.
For example, in the case of English, one can easily spot significant language differences between KJV and NIV.
Is the language of OT much different than that of NT? What makes them think that the 2 are hundreds of years apart?
For example, in the case of English, one can easily spot significant language differences between KJV and NIV.
Is the language of OT much different than that of NT? What makes them think that the 2 are hundreds of years apart?