11-26-2010, 04:36 PM
Yes, I had read the context. It might be past tense, but I was most focused on the (hau
hau`) which precedes the "die" verb. Why would the man say, "My-daughter, now she-died, ..." instead of "My-daughter, now she-dies, ..."
The Aramaic perfect tense doesn't seem to have an equivalent in English. The closest I think we can come is archaic English, as in "she-dieth", which the ear can more easily deduce as both past and present, even future as need be.
hau`) which precedes the "die" verb. Why would the man say, "My-daughter, now she-died, ..." instead of "My-daughter, now she-dies, ..."The Aramaic perfect tense doesn't seem to have an equivalent in English. The closest I think we can come is archaic English, as in "she-dieth", which the ear can more easily deduce as both past and present, even future as need be.