08-31-2010, 06:10 AM
Shlama,
in addition to what Aaron has shared, consider this:
the presence of foreign words in the Greek manuscripts is never used as evidence against it being written in Greek, so we must be careful in how we logically approach the issue of foreign words in the text of the Peshitta. there are Latin words in the Greek manuscripts, as well as Sanskrit and Aramaic, but nobody really believes the NT was originally written in Latin or Sanskrit, right? so although there are those who might think the presence of foreign words in the Aramaic is evidence against its originality, the reality is that it is no proof at all, when you give it a little more thought and play out the scenario with other texts, as well. why would we demand from the Peshitta to see a textual landscape free of foreign influence if we don't demand it from the Greek, or Latin, etc.? it just makes no sense.
a few months ago i had some extensive online debate with an individual who was adamant that the presence of Greek in the Aramaic was valuable, and for all the explanations i gave, he never seemed to understand the fact that such a method of reasoning just doesn't work. if we apply that same reasoning back to the Greek texts, it quickly becomes clear just how much it is not a valid approach.
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
in addition to what Aaron has shared, consider this:
the presence of foreign words in the Greek manuscripts is never used as evidence against it being written in Greek, so we must be careful in how we logically approach the issue of foreign words in the text of the Peshitta. there are Latin words in the Greek manuscripts, as well as Sanskrit and Aramaic, but nobody really believes the NT was originally written in Latin or Sanskrit, right? so although there are those who might think the presence of foreign words in the Aramaic is evidence against its originality, the reality is that it is no proof at all, when you give it a little more thought and play out the scenario with other texts, as well. why would we demand from the Peshitta to see a textual landscape free of foreign influence if we don't demand it from the Greek, or Latin, etc.? it just makes no sense.
a few months ago i had some extensive online debate with an individual who was adamant that the presence of Greek in the Aramaic was valuable, and for all the explanations i gave, he never seemed to understand the fact that such a method of reasoning just doesn't work. if we apply that same reasoning back to the Greek texts, it quickly becomes clear just how much it is not a valid approach.
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy