Prof. Brock Speaketh With a Foot in his Mouth

[distazo]

Secondly, I have found this verse in the Peshitta Acts 10:36. It says that He is Marya of all according to the Khobouris Mss. In the 148 manuscript however it says he is Mara of all.

In the Khobouris Mss. it says that He is Marya of all, does the 148 reading make more sense?
I am interested in what you think, because it looks to me like the Khobouris Mss is using the name Marya as though it meant lord, as also in the Nicene creed it says "One Maryah Esho Msheekha" and so they use the word Maryah to translate the Greek word for lord, if this is not so can you help me understand?

Thank you

Sami

b.t.w. I cannot find any '148 reading'

I'm not paul, but this looks like who's citing who?

1 Corinthians 8:6 "We have one God, the Father. For everything is from Him and we are in him and one mar-Yah, Jesus Christ. For everything is by him and we also are in his hands"

But, it might be true, that Kurios was translated to Mar-Jah, as in John 8:11 (palestinian syriac).

But according to Paul's explanation, Phillipians 2:9-11, we are speaking about a name, not about a title, 'kurios/lord'. As Aramaic speaking Christians knew this, it does not seem so strange to translate the 'kurios' from the Nicene creed and the khabouris have this issue.