06-27-2010, 06:41 PM
Shlama Shamasha Paul.
Thank you for this important clarification.
I have a question or two.
First, Is it possible for the word Mara (lord) to be used as a verb, for example, to lord it over someone. If so, is there anyway you could argue from that that Mara can then be subjected to this rule he is speaking of? (I am sorry I am not knowledgeable enough to express this question any clearer)
Secondly, I have found this verse in the Peshitta Acts 10:36. It says that He is Marya of all according to the Khobouris Mss. In the 148 manuscript however it says he is Mara of all.
In the Khobouris Mss. it says that He is Marya of all, does the 148 reading make more sense?
I am interested in what you think, because it looks to me like the Khobouris Mss is using the name Marya as though it meant lord, as also in the Nicene creed it says "One Maryah Esho Msheekha" and so they use the word Maryah to translate the Greek word for lord, if this is not so can you help me understand?
Thank you
Sami
Thank you for this important clarification.
I have a question or two.
First, Is it possible for the word Mara (lord) to be used as a verb, for example, to lord it over someone. If so, is there anyway you could argue from that that Mara can then be subjected to this rule he is speaking of? (I am sorry I am not knowledgeable enough to express this question any clearer)
Secondly, I have found this verse in the Peshitta Acts 10:36. It says that He is Marya of all according to the Khobouris Mss. In the 148 manuscript however it says he is Mara of all.
In the Khobouris Mss. it says that He is Marya of all, does the 148 reading make more sense?
I am interested in what you think, because it looks to me like the Khobouris Mss is using the name Marya as though it meant lord, as also in the Nicene creed it says "One Maryah Esho Msheekha" and so they use the word Maryah to translate the Greek word for lord, if this is not so can you help me understand?
Thank you
Sami