09-26-2011, 02:28 AM
Thanks, I'll add the Vulgate to the list. The Vulgate could have been influenced by the reading from the LXX as we know Jerome was very familiar with the LXX and may have used it to help him translate from the Hebrew. He may have found the same issues we are talking about now, and chose to use the LXX's translation if he felt it more superior or used it more often.
Also, I discovered that in George Lamsa's translation of the OT Aramaic Peshitto into English, that he does in fact write 'LORD' in vs.15, rather than 'Lord', which would signify he believes it to support Adonai. I find this surprising. Perhaps he understood context that way even though, from what I know, it is not written that way in the Syraic. Maybe a slip of hand? Here is the link to his English translation... <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/OTtools/LamsaOT/7_judges.htm">http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/OTtools/ ... judges.htm</a><!-- m -->
Also, the TarJon results on CAL showing "reboni" and "adoni" may just be signifying variants from other MSS (not the targum itself) - If you notice, the yud-yud abbreviation is not included in the quotations. Also, I found a site with Judges of TarJon that does not include 'reboni' or 'adon' in the text. Only the 'y-y' sacred name is present in vs.15... <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://sites.google.com/site/targumjonathan/Home/Judges">http://sites.google.com/site/targumjonathan/Home/Judges</a><!-- m --> No doubt the TarJon uses y-y
Perhaps the CAL source results left 'adon' unvoweled in vs.15 most likely because MSS differ on the usage.
Yes, the Vulgate is said to be written in the late 4th century.
I also been doing some reading in that perhaps the TarJon could be a much earlier date than the widely held 1 century CE because Aramaic Targumic texts were found along side the Dead Sea Scrolls. This could suggest the TarJon rendering of the sacred name could in fact pre-date that of the LXX. Which could also mean the translators of the LXX, translating from a vowel-less Hebrew, could have mistranslated the use of 'Adon' in vs.15. I could see how this could happen given that the Angel appears in vs.13 and is given called by the title 'Adoni', and only two verses later in vs.15 (with the Angel still present), the translators made the mistake of translating the word to 'Adoni' as they would have assumed Gideon was referring back to the Angel (representative), and not to God. Or, perhaps Adoni is the correct translation and Gideon was indeed answering the representative rather than to answer God directly. But I am still more inclined to believe that Adonai is the proper vocalization.
Also, I discovered that in George Lamsa's translation of the OT Aramaic Peshitto into English, that he does in fact write 'LORD' in vs.15, rather than 'Lord', which would signify he believes it to support Adonai. I find this surprising. Perhaps he understood context that way even though, from what I know, it is not written that way in the Syraic. Maybe a slip of hand? Here is the link to his English translation... <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/OTtools/LamsaOT/7_judges.htm">http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/OTtools/ ... judges.htm</a><!-- m -->
Also, the TarJon results on CAL showing "reboni" and "adoni" may just be signifying variants from other MSS (not the targum itself) - If you notice, the yud-yud abbreviation is not included in the quotations. Also, I found a site with Judges of TarJon that does not include 'reboni' or 'adon' in the text. Only the 'y-y' sacred name is present in vs.15... <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://sites.google.com/site/targumjonathan/Home/Judges">http://sites.google.com/site/targumjonathan/Home/Judges</a><!-- m --> No doubt the TarJon uses y-y
Perhaps the CAL source results left 'adon' unvoweled in vs.15 most likely because MSS differ on the usage.
Yes, the Vulgate is said to be written in the late 4th century.
I also been doing some reading in that perhaps the TarJon could be a much earlier date than the widely held 1 century CE because Aramaic Targumic texts were found along side the Dead Sea Scrolls. This could suggest the TarJon rendering of the sacred name could in fact pre-date that of the LXX. Which could also mean the translators of the LXX, translating from a vowel-less Hebrew, could have mistranslated the use of 'Adon' in vs.15. I could see how this could happen given that the Angel appears in vs.13 and is given called by the title 'Adoni', and only two verses later in vs.15 (with the Angel still present), the translators made the mistake of translating the word to 'Adoni' as they would have assumed Gideon was referring back to the Angel (representative), and not to God. Or, perhaps Adoni is the correct translation and Gideon was indeed answering the representative rather than to answer God directly. But I am still more inclined to believe that Adonai is the proper vocalization.