01-20-2010, 04:56 AM
Kara Wrote:Peers,
Why does Jesus refer to himself as ?????? ?????????? or "the son of the man" although the original Aramaic term for ???man??? is ( ??)????(??) (resh)(bet)? The former term was first employed by Tatian in his Diatessaron, which is a direct translation of the Greek christological title ??? ????????? ??????? ????????????????. .
Wasn't Tatian a Syrian?

