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counter example
#5
Kara Wrote:Peers,

Why does Jesus refer to himself as ?????? ?????????? or "the son of the man" although the original Aramaic term for ???man??? is ( ??)????(??) (resh)(bet)? The former term was first employed by Tatian in his Diatessaron, which is a direct translation of the Greek christological title ??? ????????? ??????? ????????????????. .

Wasn't Tatian a Syrian?
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Messages In This Thread
counter example - by Kara - 01-19-2010, 08:02 PM
Re: counter example - by Burning one - 01-19-2010, 10:40 PM
Re: counter example - by Kara - 01-19-2010, 11:25 PM
Re: counter example - by Burning one - 01-20-2010, 02:07 AM
Re: counter example - by judge - 01-20-2010, 04:56 AM
Re: counter example - by Paul Younan - 01-20-2010, 08:42 PM
Re: counter example - by Kara - 01-21-2010, 06:34 PM
Re: counter example - by Burning one - 01-21-2010, 09:52 PM

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