01-19-2010, 11:25 PM
Burning one,
Thank you for replying. I do understand your line of reasoning. But let's test your argument:
1) You argue that we can abundantly find the phrase ?????? ?????????? or its Greek equivalent ??? ????????? ??????? ???????????????? in both the Old and New Testaments. But where in the Old? Remember, ( ??)????(??) (resh)(bet)---or "son of man" has an entirely different connotation than the aforementioned; it is simply an idiom for "man." Son of the man" has a specific tie to the Syriac Church:
???for this reason, then, he was called ???the son of the man??? because he became the son of the new man who preceded the transgression of the commandment??? (Philoxenus).
If you can find a Hebrew equivalent that (1) encompasses this particular meaning and (2) is present in the Old Testament in reference to Jesus, then you may have proven me wrong.
Thank you for replying. I do understand your line of reasoning. But let's test your argument:
1) You argue that we can abundantly find the phrase ?????? ?????????? or its Greek equivalent ??? ????????? ??????? ???????????????? in both the Old and New Testaments. But where in the Old? Remember, ( ??)????(??) (resh)(bet)---or "son of man" has an entirely different connotation than the aforementioned; it is simply an idiom for "man." Son of the man" has a specific tie to the Syriac Church:
???for this reason, then, he was called ???the son of the man??? because he became the son of the new man who preceded the transgression of the commandment??? (Philoxenus).
If you can find a Hebrew equivalent that (1) encompasses this particular meaning and (2) is present in the Old Testament in reference to Jesus, then you may have proven me wrong.