Your "mistranslations" confirm Greek primacy

[Thirdwoe]

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Tradition is a funny thing and more often than not, runs afoul of the truth....

You say:

"What we DON'T know is who translated the other OT books into Greek, where those translations took place and when...."

If we don't know, how can you then say:

"not all the books were translated by those 72 scholars who translated the Torah...." "Stephen saying that the LXX wasn't completed until the 3rd century AD is correct because the earliest complete mss of the LXX date from that century."

And you should know that just because the oldest found mss copies date to a certain century, does not mean that is when the orginal mss were made....if you use this same logic with the Aramaic NT you will find a red face looking back in the mirror, not to mention the oldest complete Hebrew Old Testament text we have today.

You also say:

It's likely that the Greek translations of the Hebrew OT books weren't codified until then or shortly before that.

I say that it may not be so likely, unless we say that the Greek New Testament which often makes use of the Greek Old Testament in many places was not written until these late dates...can anyone say with conviction of proof that there existed no Greek New Testament Books, until the times of Origen???

I see lots of proof otherwise, and it looks very obvious that the New Testament books in Greek all appear by the end of the 1st Century...

Now, in saying all this, I want to make clear that I am not a Greek primacist, nor am I trying to prove that the Greek is the Original...I just want to be hearing truth when I want to learn something. And I will work hard to find it if I can...I understand the desire to show the Aramaic to be the Original, and I am all for that when it can be shown, and there are certain realities that we can ignore, or even be ignorant of, but that won't make them non-realities....

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