Your "mistranslations" confirm Greek primacy

[enarxe]

enarxe,
I'm not writing about consistency of various greek manuscripts. I was just surprised that all these (so different) manuscripts contain the same "errors", for example in Romans 5,7 and many other verses.

Oh, I see. Thanks for clarifying this. You see, this plethora of Greek variants is a real problem. If you one says that Greek NT was written first then the very first question is WHICH or WHAT Greek NT?

Coming back to your original post - I still cannot see how this can be applied as an argument for Greek primacy. Could you possibly explain using let us say three "mistranslation" examples and how these are the same in Greek? Before a synthetic statement (conclusion) one would need to see the details explained.

Peace and blessings,
Jerzy