Posts: 15
Threads: 4
Joined: Oct 2011
Reputation:
0
I have a curious question on 1 Timothy 3:2. It is often translated "husband of one wife", but it seems that this could also be translated "husband of a glad/rejoicing wife". I am such a novice at this - I could be so far off that an experienced translator may find this funny. If I am misunderstanding, could someone please explain this to me?
Posts: 73
Threads: 11
Joined: Dec 2009
Reputation:
0
07-05-2015, 08:50 PM
(This post was last modified: 07-05-2015, 08:51 PM by gregoryfl.)
Yes, if you were to read the text without vowel markings, you would need to look at the context. I understand what you are seeing though. Let's look at it without the vowel points. Word order helps us here. In Semitic language, modifiers of nouns (in your case, 'rejoicing or glad or joyous') come AFTER the noun it modifies, not before it. While we speak of a 'glad wife', in Semitic language they would say it as 'wife glad'. One familiar greeting we share in the morning with others is בוקר טוב. This literally is 'morning good'. In English it is 'good morning'.
Ronen
Posts: 15
Threads: 4
Joined: Oct 2011
Reputation:
0
Perfect - that is just the type of answer I was hoping to get. Thank you.