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A question about chapter divisions
#1
Hello,

I have done a study on a Arabic travelogue by a seventeenth century Chaldean priest called Ilyas b. Hanna al-Mawsili. I am however a student of history and Arabic, and have never had any training in the theological history of eastern christianity. Although I have learned a lot by reading a lot, there are still a few questions, among which one I would like to pose one here.

In the travelogue it is clear that Ilyas did not use a European Bible (he also did not conduct mass in Latin, but almost always in Syriac), despite him being Catholic and having strong links with the Vatican. This is most clear when he cites Luke 13:28-30, but mentions that this is from the 52nd chapter of Luke, whereas the European Bible does not have that many chapters. I have found a Arabic language Bible from the 17th century scanned on-line in which this 52nd chapter is present and is the same as what Ilyas cites, see: <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://s2w.hbz-nrw.de/ulbbn/content/pageview/110259">http://s2w.hbz-nrw.de/ulbbn/content/pageview/110259</a><!-- m --> The problem is however that this Bible was printed in Leiden and it is not clear what Thomas Erpenius used as source material for this.

My question for you is this: are there Peshitta copies of (before) the seventeenth century which have similar alternate chapter headings, or did Ilyas (and Thomas Erpenius) most probably use a non-Peshitta Bible edition? I know there were a lot of divergent Bible versions common in the East, but knowing he used a Peshitta or not would already be a great narrowing down, as it possibly also says something about his position with relation to the Church of the East!

Thank you very much in advance!
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