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Book's without Peshita II Peter, II and III John
#1
The aramic translations of books that are not present in the Peshitta as II Peter, II and III John, Jude and Apocallipse are made from that manuscript?
As these are considered by the Syriac Church?

Tank's


Alexandre Riveira
brazil
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#2
The United Bible Society edition (1905) (from minor-asia) has them all, however, the eastern canon (Irak), does not. <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
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#3
I understand
What I wonder is, if the Peshitta not have these books, who translated them? What is the codex or book that possesses the translations?
And last if still today the Eastern Church does not accept these books.

Sincerely,


Alexandre Riveira
brazil
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#4
ariveira Wrote:I understand
What I wonder is, if the Peshitta not have these books, who translated them? What is the codex or book that possesses the translations?
And last if still today the Eastern Church does not accept these books.

Sincerely,


Alexandre Riveira
brazil

The Peshitta text, is not -just- the Eastern text, it is both western and eastern.

The tradition sais that apostle thomas went to the east of mid-east.

Another hint about 'how they did it' is in 2 Timothy 4:13.
Paul, obviously, had a collection of 'books' / letters which he considered important.
In those days, books did not exist, it were scrolls and semi-pro's or profs like Luke made translations to Greek (this is historically documented).

Scrolls/letters were sent around to congregations (Colossians 4:16, Acts 15:30)

In those days, obviously a few copies were made and when Thomas went to the far mid-east, he would have taken copies that were most recent to him and most important, authentic.
When 5 additional letters were sent around in Turkey (Asia)/Judea/Greece those letters might never have been acknowledged for unknown reasons (probably the distance?).
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