Acts 1:19 - Printable Version +- Peshitta Forum (http://peshitta.org/for) +-- Forum: New Testament (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=3) +--- Forum: Variances Explained by Aramaic (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=13) +--- Thread: Acts 1:19 (/showthread.php?tid=3377) |
Acts 1:19 - Bram - 10-10-2014 Shlama Shamasha Paul, Why does in Acts 1:19 of Peshitta text have explanation of Khagel-Dema to Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century, as it is written in Greek source/Bible? or it is not for Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century (at this case)? Source: wwww.peshitta.org Tawdee. Rudolf <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> Re: Acts 1:19 - Paul Younan - 10-10-2014 Hi Rudolf. This example has been explained many times on this forum for years. Please search the posts so we don't wind up answering the same question over and over again. Thank you +Shamasha Re: Acts 1:19 - ScorpioSniper2 - 10-10-2014 This is most likely translating to a different dialect (as in Mark 15:34) or simply clarifying the meaning of the phrase, as in Mark 3:17. Re: Acts 1:19 - Bram - 10-12-2014 Paul Younan Wrote:Hi Rudolf. This example has been explained many times on this forum for years. Please search the posts so we don't wind up answering the same question over and over again. Ok, Shamasha Paul, tawdee. |