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+--- Thread: Lord or Master? (/showthread.php?tid=3149)
Lord or Master? - Thirdwoe - 09-15-2013
Is this true?
The term "Mara' can mean Lord and Master, but it depends on the context of the sentence AND the spelling of that term to distinguish the difference.
Look at the term "master' (mareh) in the following verses:
Matthew 18 (Verses 25, 26, 31, 32 and 34)
Matthew 20 (verses 1 and 11) - uses the term for 'Landowner' or "Master" (Mareh d'Beytha)
If you look at the word for 'Lord' (Mara/Mari or Lord/My Lord) Look at John 20:28 where the term 'Mara or Mari (Lord/My Lord) should NOT be translated 'Master'
Maran is 'Our Lord' and NOT "Master"... Mareh d'Beyta means "Master" and NOT "Our Lord".
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Re: Lord of Master? - distazo - 09-15-2013
To me, the lord of a field or of a household (as if 'master' would be better), does not sound strange so I would keep it straight <!-- s
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Re: Lord or Master? - Thirdwoe - 09-15-2013
The person who sent that to me, seemed to think that "Master" is never to be a translation in English of "Maran", but that always and only "Lord" or "our Lord" is allowable from the Aramaic word/term.
Is this true?
Re: Lord of Master? - distazo - 09-15-2013
I am not an academic, but whynot? To me, Maran never sounds strange stranslated as our Lord or lord.
Just look at this:
Master of a Household
Lord of a Household
Which one of the two looks strange? I think both are fine. So, why not always translate it as 'lord/Lord'?
Re: Lord or Master? - Thirdwoe - 09-16-2013
I don't know, he seems to think that "Maran" can never be rightly translated into English as "Master" or "Our Master", just "Lord" or "Our Lord".
Anyone know any linguistic reason to support that idea?
Either way seems good to me, and it seems to me that they mean the same thing in English too.
.
Re: Lord of Master? - ScorpioSniper2 - 09-16-2013
Is there really that much difference between the modern understanding of "Master" and "Lord"? I am using "Lord" to translate Mar and its variants.
Re: Lord of Master? - distazo - 09-16-2013
Thirdwoe Wrote:I don't know, he seems to think that "Maran" can never be rightly translated into English as "Master" or "Our Master", just "Lord" or "Our Lord".
Anyone know any linguistic reason to support that idea?
Either way seems good to me, and it seems to me that they mean the same thing in English too.
.
The Greek does not but this is not a measure for us.
Eg: KJV has in Eph 6:8 'your master' while the source has 'kurios'.
In 2 tim 2:21 we have a 'master' translated from 'despotes' while the Aramaic has 'mareh' (his master).
If you take the Greek-Aramaic translation table (which I am working on) I see some translation errors. If acedemics take this as 'inspired work' I can imagine they try to figure out some 'grammatical rules' which in fact don't work now as well.
The samples above, show that neither the Greek or Aramaic (regardles of Greek or Aramaic primacist) are consistent.
The -only- rule I can think of, is this: If it is human, translate 'master' if it is about Jesus, translate 'Lord'. But figure, why does the Peshitta -not- make this distinction and why can't a reader understand when lord is about a human and Lord is about God?