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+--- Thread: Peshitta Pater Noster (/showthread.php?tid=3108)
Peshitta Pater Noster - memradya - 06-28-2013
Shlama'
All the manuscrpits that I know (including the old syriac when we have the text) read : our bread [...] give us
The Peshitta is the only one who put the verb in the beginning of the sentence... Someone have a explanation ?
It's weird
Re: Peshitta Pater Noster - distazo - 08-03-2013
I have compared the Greek and the F.C Burkit syriac, and the Peshitta. Just for fun.
Greek:
Our bread, the needful, give, to us, today.
F. C. Burkitt Syriac
And our bread, continual, of today, give, to us.
Peshitta
Give, to us, bread, needful, today
Now I am not perfect at Aramaic grammar (understatement), but the peshitta really looks like the right word-order. If you search on the verb 'give', it is placed at the beginning of the sentence.
eg
"Give me what you owe me" (mt 18:28) not: "What you owe me, give to me"
"Give me water to drink" (John 4:7) not: "Water, give me to drink"
So in short, the F.C. Burkit prayer, sounds like not paying attention to the correct placement of subject and object. Can some one who is fluent at (A)syrian Aramaic, confirm this?
Re: Peshitta Pater Noster - memradya - 09-17-2013
I just saw that Luke's priest is in same order that Peshitta with the verb in the beginning of the sentence.
If the peshitta have the right word-order, why the GNT put the verb in the end of the sentence ?
Re: Peshitta Pater Noster - bknight - 09-19-2013
Shlama Akhi,
Greek and Aramaic have different grammatical rules for what constitutes a "proper sentence."
That would be relevant if GNT was written in "proper" Greek, but every language scholar that studies it agrees the 27 books of the Greek New Testament are some of the poorest examples of Greek grammar that have managed to survive from that time period.
Hope that helps.
Re: Peshitta Pater Noster - distazo - 09-19-2013
bknight Wrote:That would be relevant if GNT was written in "proper" Greek, but every language scholar that studies it agrees the 27 books of the Greek New Testament are some of the poorest examples of Greek grammar that have managed to survive from that time period..
Figure that. One issue is the usage of the definitive article 'o'. The Greek NT manuscripts have a lot of variances there. And why? Because Aramaic does not have a definite article at all, so it is up to the translator to add the article or not. This explains the 'chaotic' usage of definitive article in the GNT, and the Bible Scholars really cannot make up a grammatical rule for it <!-- s
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