"Christians" in Peshitta - Printable Version +- Peshitta Forum (http://peshitta.org/for) +-- Forum: New Testament (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=3) +--- Forum: General (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=7) +--- Thread: "Christians" in Peshitta (/showthread.php?tid=3014) Pages:
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Re: "Christians" in Peshitta - The Texas RAT - 03-17-2013 bknight Wrote:My question was whether there was another name which the earliest christians called themselves by -- to which you and Will and Chuck all gave your two cents worth -- and why (specifically) Keepa in his first epistle would use the greek name when addressing non-greeks.I wish I could have given two cents worth <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/blush.gif" alt="" title="Blush" /><!-- s --> . yet I am striving to save up another cent so that hopefully one day I will be fully capable of doing so, <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/cool1.gif" alt="" title="Cool" /><!-- s --> . Re: "Christians" in Peshitta - Paul Younan - 03-17-2013 bknight Wrote:Paul Younan Wrote:Agree with you that Aramaic, much like every language in the history of languages, contains loan words from the languages of neighboring peoples. My question was whether there was another name which the earliest christians called themselves by -- to which you and Will and Chuck all gave your two cents worth -- and why (specifically) Keepa in his first epistle would use the greek name when addressing non-greeks. You're welcome, BK. As a sidenote: in our native tongue we still refer to ourselves (and others, in every Church denomination) as "Meshikhaye" (Messianics). It would not be odd to hear an Assyrian call someone from the Baptist church a "Meshikhaya", nor would it be odd if the Assyrian called the Baptist a "Kristyana". The words had long ago become synonymous in our language. At one point in time, one referred to Aramaic-speaking believers, and the other referred to Greek-speaking believers (among the Aramaic speaking population, of course). At another point in time, the Persians (Sassanids) referred to native believers as "Nazarenes" and the conquered Greek-speakers whom they took into captivity, "Christians". This was to differentiate the native Persian Church from the Roman captives. Why did Peter use the Greek term in his epistle to Jewish believers? Perhaps to let them know there was no shame in the name that was, in the beginning, a slur ... maybe the non-believing Jews used the Greek term as a spite or a jab at their perceived abandonment of all things "Jewish." +Shamasha Paul |