Peshitta Forum
Gawra again, Matthew 1:16 - Printable Version

+- Peshitta Forum (http://peshitta.org/for)
+-- Forum: New Testament (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=3)
+--- Forum: Mistranslations (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=9)
+--- Thread: Gawra again, Matthew 1:16 (/showthread.php?tid=1185)



Gawra again, Matthew 1:16 - ograabe - 01-26-2005

January 26, 2005

Paul Younan's essay on the geneology of Jesus notes that the Greek word for husband is "aner" and the Greek word for father is "pater". However, in Matthew 1:16 the Greek word used to describe this Joseph is "andra". The Strong's number is the same as for "aner", but these seem to be two different words to me with "andra" being more generally a male head of the household like "gawra" in the Peshitta. Maybe the Greek and Aramaic texts are more in agreement than was previously mentioned with both referring to Mary's father, uncle, or guardian rather than her husband.

Comments please....

Otto


- gbausc - 01-28-2005

Shlama Akhi Otto,

"Andra" and "Aner' are the same Greek word in different "cases"; Aner is nominative case, used as a subject in a sentence; "Andra" is the accusative case of "Aner", used as the object in a sentence.
All Greek nouns have at least eight forms-
four singular cases and four plural:
Nominative,Genitive,Dative,Accusative.

A good Greek grammar will point this out.

Strong's correctly states that "Andra" is "Aner". Same word;same meaning.

Burktha,

Dave


- Dave - 01-28-2005

How about this:

Quote:A Hebrew transation of Matthew 1:16 translates the word, baal l[b which is an ancient way of referring to a person's husband.
The Aramaic word in question is from the root verb "gavar," rbg which means: to be uppermost, to prevail, to be strong." When used as a noun it means: "man or master." Used as a noun it seems best translated to baal in Hebrew. This information comes from Marcus Jastrows Dictionary of the Targumim, Talmud Bable, Yerushalemi and Midrashic Literature, The Judaica Press in New York pg. 208 and 209.



- ograabe - 02-10-2005

Dear Dave,

Thanks for the clear reply and Greek lesson!

Sincerely,

Otto


Re: Gawra again, Matthew 1:16 ~ 2nd question - Yochanan5730 - 11-15-2008

Sh'lama-Shalom <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

i have looked around the forums and haven't noticed an answer for the following question, though skimming thru, i may very well have missed it <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: -->

the concept of Gaw'rah meaning "father"... is this a recent idea of its interpretation (like the last 100 years) or is there some COE history behind its meaning "husband"? and if so, how long? i have been looking around in various places for some history to this meaning, but everything i have found so far seems recent.

Many Blessings,
John